Okay, next verse. For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law, and that would be either the Mosaic law or it would have been Roman law, any law, to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband is dead, she is freed from the law of her husband.
So this is why, if you're looking at verse 2, it seems like Paul in verse 1 must be saying the law is in force, has dominion as long as it lives, because the next thing he says is, for the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. Okay? But if he's dead, then she's freed from his law. Okay? So that would, uh, equate to the Mosaic law, uh, as well.