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Jumpstarter 5 of 10

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Question 5
In Matthew 5:31–32 David highlights that Jesus gives an exception for divorcing a wife (“except porneia”) but gives no exception for marrying a divorced woman (“whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery”); how does that asymmetry land on you, and what real-life scenarios does it immediately create tension with?
Another way to ask: How do you react to Jesus allowing an exception for divorcing a wife but not giving an exception for marrying a divorced woman? What real situations does that make feel difficult or confusing?

Direct Answer David says the asymmetry is meant to be taken at face value: even if a divorce was “lawful” due to sexual immorality, the divorced woman is still not free to remarry, since Jesus gives no remarriage exception. That immediately creates tension with common situations where churches approve remarriage after “biblical divorce.”

Support from Transcript:

  • Matthew 5: “whoever divorces his wife, for any reason except sexual immorality… causes her to commit adultery.”
  • David defines porneia as broad: “sexual immorality… unlawful sex relations… prostitution… bestiality… very broad word.”
  • He contrasts “porneia” with “adultery” (different Greek word, narrower to married unfaithfulness).
  • Key point: “Whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery. Does he give any exception there? No.”
  • David concludes: either she was divorced lawfully or wrongfully, “in God’s eyes, she’s not free,” and marrying her is adultery.
Discussion Follow-ups What cases do you immediately think of—abuse, abandonment, long-ago divorces? How does David’s reading differ from what you have been taught about “free to remarry”?