Skip to content

Add your phone number?

Optional. Nothing is sent unless you choose it.

The Historic Faith
Sign in
Question 10
Bercot argues Isaiah 7:14 is decisive: Matthew cites “virgin” (parthenos) from the Septuagint, while the Masoretic reads alma (“young woman”), and he presents two possibilities—scribal change before Christ or providential translation; if the Septuagint wording safeguards “a central and essential teaching of Christianity,” how should that affect which Old Testament text Christians treat as authoritative, and what practical changes (in study, preaching, or Bible buying) would obedience to that conclusion require?
Another way to ask: If the Septuagint’s wording in Isaiah 7:14 (“virgin”) protects a core Christian belief, should Christians treat that Old Testament text as more authoritative? If so, what would you change in your study, preaching, or even which Bible you buy?

Direct Answer Based on Bercot’s argument, Christians should treat the Septuagintal form as the authoritative Old Testament for the church, since it undergirds the virgin birth prophecy as Matthew cites it, and obedience would mean intentionally using and consulting the Septuagint in study and teaching.

Support from Transcript:

  • He calls Isaiah 7:14 “perhaps the single most significant Old Testament prophecy about the Messiah.”
  • Matthew 1:22–23 cites: “Behold, the virgin shall be with child,” which Bercot says comes from the Septuagint (parthenos).
  • The Masoretic reads “young woman,” using alma; he says this is “best translated young woman,” and contrasts it with bethula (biological virgin).
  • He argues the virgin birth is “a central and essential teaching of Christianity… Without the virgin birth… you simply have a good man.”
  • He gives two explanations: (1) Hebrew originally had bethula and was changed to alma before Christ, or (2) the translators providentially rendered alma as parthenos.
  • He earlier concludes: “the Septuagint is the Old Testament that God wanted preserved and used by Christians everywhere.”
Discussion Follow-ups Practically, would “using the apostles’ Bible” mean buying a Septuagint, preaching from it when OT citations are at stake, and rethinking how you treat Masoretic-based English OTs in doctrinal debates?