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Question 1
David Bercot argues that if the Septuagint is “defective,” then New Testament quotations import those defects into the New Testament itself; how does his example from Matthew 12:16–21 / Isaiah 42 (“In His name the Gentiles will trust” vs. “the coastlands shall wait for his law”) force you to decide what you really believe about Scripture and God’s providence?
Another way to ask: Bercot says if the Septuagint has errors, then the New Testament would repeat them when it quotes it. How does the Matthew 12 / Isaiah 42 example push you to decide what you believe about Scripture and God’s control over it?

Direct Answer Bercot’s Matthew 12 / Isaiah 42 example forces a choice: either accept that the New Testament (and its claim about what Isaiah said) is trustworthy, or accept that the apostles quoted a defective Bible and thereby introduced error into Scripture.

Support from Transcript:

  • He says if the Septuagint is “not the true Word of God, and if it is defective, it means that our New Testament contains errors as a result.”
  • In Matthew 12:21 the quotation ends, “And in His Name, the Gentiles will trust,” which Bercot says follows the Septuagint of Isaiah 42:1–4.
  • He contrasts the Masoretic ending: “And the coastlands shall wait for his law,” noting it “does not say… the Gentiles will trust.”
  • He presses the dilemma: “Did Isaiah say… or didn’t he say it? And it’s not a minor point… a very important Messianic prophecy.”
  • If Archer’s view is right, then “Isaiah never said those words… Paul is quoting Isaiah in error,” and “the supposed errors… have come into our New Testament.”
  • He concludes: since “none of us believe that the New Testament contains error,” then “Isaiah and the other prophets must have said” what the Septuagint records.
Discussion Follow-ups Based on Bercot’s reasoning, what does “God’s providence” have to include—just inspiration of the New Testament writers, or also providential provision of the Old Testament text they used?