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Jumpstarter 8 of 10

Ideas to help restart your discussion
Question 8
Calvinists, Finny says, often reinterpret “world,” “all,” and “everyone” as “all the elect” (citing examples like John 1:29; John 3:16; Isaiah 53:6); what standards should govern when we’re allowed to narrow universal-sounding terms, and how would early Christians “for centuries before Calvin” likely have heard Paul’s command to pray “for all men…for kings” in 1 Timothy 2?
Another way to ask: When, if ever, is it right to read words like “world,” “all,” and “everyone” as meaning “all the elect”? How do you think Christians before Calvin would have understood Paul’s command to pray for “all men…for kings” in 1 Timothy 2?

Direct Answer Finny implies we should only narrow universal terms when the context clearly demands it; otherwise, redefining “all/world” as “all the elect” becomes forced and arbitrary. He argues early Christians would have heard 1 Timothy 2’s “all men… for kings and all in authority” as meaning all people broadly, not only Christians.

Support from Transcript:

  • Finny quotes Isaiah 53:6 (“iniquity of us all”) and says Calvinists insert: “all of the elect.”
  • He cites John 1:29 (“sin of the world”) and John 3:16 (“God so loved the world”) and notes some argue “world… [is] the world of the elect.”
  • Finny calls that move “insanity” and says it shows how far people will go “if you want to really prove something.”
  • On Hebrews 2:9 (“taste death for everyone”), he criticizes narrowing to “everyone in the church” as “bad exegesis… putting your own opinions in.”
  • On 1 Timothy 2, he appeals to context: prayers “for all men, for kings and all who are in authority,” repeated “all men” (vv.1–4).
  • He argues the “most natural reading” is “generally all people… how people read that for centuries before Calvin.”
Discussion Follow-ups What are some legitimate cases where “all” might mean “all kinds” or “all within a group,” and how do we tell the difference without system-driven reading?