John 21:15-19 Agapo Vs Phileo

The best I can come up with is from blueletterbible.org. This doesn't match what I have heard from the Evangelical world, which is Agape is a sacrificial love and Phileo is a friendly love. I believe David Bercot addresses this in one of his CD sets on Scroll Publishing.

φιλέω philéō, fil-eh'-o; from G5384 ; to be a friend to (fond of (an individual or an object)), i.e. have affection for (denoting personal attachment, as a matter of sentiment or feeling; while G25 is wider, embracing especially the judgment and the deliberate assent of the will as a matter of principle, duty and propriety: the two thus stand related very much as G2309 and G1014 , or as G2372 and G3563 respectively; the former being chiefly of the heart and the latter of the head);

specially, to kiss (as a mark of tenderness):—kiss, love.

It seems like they're being used interchangeably in this passage; I'm not seeing a theme in the times the different term is used. Maybe there's something I'm missing, though.

An interesting passage to consider is John ch21:15-19 (please check out my comment below)I have been studying biblical Greek for a number of years. Ágape αγαπε is the kind of love that according to the best of my memory, is the love God has for us and that he asked us to have for each other. From what I understand philo φίλο is the natural affection that develops in relationships. The scripture reference which I have given above is interesting in regards to this topic. I believe the new online bible on this website offers a interlinear English Greek format

Agapao is typically used throughout the New Testament for any generic "love." Phileo is used less, often in contexts of love between friends, although Jesus used the word when He said that the Pharisees love greetings in the market (Luke 20:46) and several comparable verses in Matthew 6:5 and Matthew 23:6. The passage in John 21 is often explained in this manner: Jesus was using a higher form of "love," and Peter was responding with a lower form of "love." Unfortunately, the evidence simply isn't there. In fact, Kevin Grasso argues in one of his podcasts that the opposite seems more likely. Grasso's specific argument is that in the three times that Jesus repeated the question, He kept upping the level or intensity, finally culminating with "Do you love (φιλεῖς-phileo) me?" But Peter had been responding with φιλῶ (phileo) all along.
Very interesting to think about. Keep in mind, the best way to define a word is by looking at all its uses in context.

Hi I guess I will explain myself a little further on my colorful thoughts concerning agape and philo I realize there are different variations of these two words. Please bear with me. A while ago when I shared my comment I gave a reference that just so happened to be the exact reference in question. How silly of me! My apologies. I guess I should say that the way I actually study Greek is within its context and hardly nothing else. Instead of looking up definitions in the Strong’s or other sources I simply just read the Bible. I began with an interlinear. Today I am familiar enough with koine Greek that I simply study my English Bible along side my Greek New Testament. Am I a scholar with great mystic knowledge? Far be it, not be a long shot. Yes I am definitely familiar with koine Greek but I have so much more to learn.  So, what brought me to the conclusion that Agape αγάπη was the kind of Love which God has for us and he expects us to have for each other? Well because it is just that way. I have currently read the entire way through the New Testament and I am working my way through a second time. Perhaps I am wrong but so far that is what I have seen.  There is however a passage which list a number of Christian Attributes. 2 Peter 1:5-7 There he lists agapen (love) and Philadelphia (brotherly kindness or brotherly love). Also at the End of a number of Paul’s letters he tells us to greet each other with the holy kiss. From what I understand the Greek word translated kiss is commonly related to Philo although I believe there was at times another Greek word meaning kiss. So, what brought me to the conclusion that Agape has a meaning much deeper than Philo or shall I say an expression of affection. Well returning to the days of my teenage years I had a multitude of Girl problems. I had a desire to follow Jesus and then I read 1 Corinthian ch 13 and I was blown away. I thought I was in Love. Or least that’s what I told nearly every pretty girl I knew. Shame on me! But no, the truth of the matter is I knew nothing about Love. If you don’t know 1 Corinthians ch 13 by heart already, read it again it’s a real eye opener. Maybe you say, well that doesn’t prove anything special about Agape. That’s fine! When God opened my eyes to Genuine Love I had not the slightest idea, that there may be a deeper meaning. None of it mattered, I was just being made aware of my LACK of Love. Let’s consider another passage Romans ch13:9-10 Paul writes that the Ten Commandments are summed up in one saying “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” “Therefore Love is the fulfillment of the law.” Now I would like to present a question “What led Paul to this conclusion about Love (Agape)? If I were to tell you that general Love as we know it, was the fulfillment of the Law, then I would invite you to call me crazy. Are butterfly feelings for someone a fulfillment of the Law? Certainly not. So could a Greek speaker have possibly taken Paul that way. Perhaps, unless they knew Jesus (to be continued). Lately I was noticing that in the Septuagint, agape is commonly used to refer to Marital Love. Even in an obvious extreme case of Lust such as Ammon and Tamar the 250BC translators still used the word Agape. So maybe I was wrong. And Paul got really Colorful. Or Did a man by the name of Jesus Christ alter its meaning? 1 John 3:16 “Hereby we know Love, because he laid down his Life for us.” Earlier John writes in 1 John Ch 2:10 “He that loves his brother abides in the Light. And there is no occasion of stumbling in him.” What about the Philo φιλώ? As already mentioned it was used at times to describe the describe affection and fondness. It was also used to describe a Kiss. I personally think I see a distinction between these two Greek words. But at the end of the Day that’s just my opinion and nothing more. I have shown some context that has brought me to this persuasion but it’s just my opinion. I am fully aware the I am giving a much more colorful definition that what Strong’s offers. Maybe I am wrong. Maybe I have a wild imagination. Anyways God bless you all. I love (agape) you all dearly.

Hey Nathanael, my Greek background is similar to yours. I learned Greek with Biblingo, but I'm still working my way through the New Testament. My understanding of ἀγάπη is that it is simply a general term for love, just like the English term love. It can mean God's love, it can mean love toward brothers, it can mean marital love, it can mean love of things, it can mean love that sinners have, it can mean love of the world. You can see those meanings in these verses that all use forms ἀγαπᾷ:

Luke 7:5 For he lovethG25 our nation, and he hath built us a synagogue.

Luke 6:32 For if ye love G25 them which love G25 you, what thank have ye? for sinners also love G25 those that love G25 them.

Luke 11:43 Woe unto you, Pharisees! for ye loveG25 the uppermost seats in the synagogues, and greetings in the markets.

John 12:43 For they [chief rulers] lovedG25 the praise of men more than the praise of God.

Ephesians 5:25 Husbands, love G25 your wives, even as Christ also loved G25 the church, and gave himself for it;

2 Timothy 4:10 For Demas hath forsaken me, having loved G25 this present world, and is departed unto Thessalonica; Crescens to Galatia, Titus unto Dalmatia.

2 Peter 2:15 Which have forsaken the right way, and are gone astray, following the way of Balaam the son of Bosor, who loved G25 the wages of unrighteousness;

1 John 3:14 We know that we have passed from death unto life, because we love G25 the brethren. He that loveth G25 not his brother abideth in death.

The term is also used every time it talks of God's love for us. But if we look at all the uses of the term, it quickly becomes obvious that it is used much more broadly than just in reference to God's love or any special kind of love. This is simply Greek's generic term for love. I'm not negating the idea that God has a deeper level of love than the world, I just don't think that idea is expressed linguistically in the text of the New Testament.

That’s great I love studying the Bible in its original languages. I am really happy to hear you are taking the time to learn Greek and study the New Testament in that manner. God bless you brother! And thanks for sharing your insight. 

For an Old Testament example, in 2 Sam 13, when it says that Amnon loved Tamar, it's G25, including in vs 15, where it says the hatred he then had for her was more than the love which he had for her.https://www.apostolicbibleapp.com/

Thanks, Dan and Joshua. It’s just certain passages such as Romans 13:9-10 and 1 Corinthians ch13, caused me to wonder at times whether there could perhaps be a better way to translate G25. I know it sounds funny. Considering passages like Amnon and Tamar reassured me “Love” is indeed an Accurate translation. So, help me. Explain why Paul chose to talk this way. I am honestly not looking for conflict. I sincerely welcome your feedback.

I think it is because there is a genuine love of God that the world does not know. The world can appreciate and admire the love that we are called to have toward each other, and I think to a certain degree replicate it. But they have no explanation for people who love their enemies and are even willing to die in place of their enemies.