Jumpstarter 6 of 10

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Question 6

Tertullian’s line—Jewish women were recognized because they were veiled—implies many Gentile women weren’t; how does that evidence affect the popular idea that “respectable women” in the Greco-Roman world were always veiled and only prostitutes were unveiled?

Another way to ask: Tertullian suggests Jewish women were known for being veiled, which may mean many Gentile women were not. How does that affect the claim that “respectable women” were always veiled and only prostitutes were unveiled?

Direct Answer Bercot uses Tertullian to undermine the claim that veiling was universal for respectable Greco-Roman women; if Jewish women stood out because of veils, then many Gentile women must not have worn them. That also weakens the “only prostitutes are unveiled” story.

Support from Transcript:

Bercot quotes Tertullian: “Among the Jews, so usual is it for their women to have the head veiled that they may thereby be recognized.”
He calls it “significant… evidence” because it shows Gentile women “didn’t” normally veil.
He draws the inference explicitly: “If a Jewish woman could be recognized because she wore a veil, then obviously the Roman women weren’t normally wearing them.”
He reminds readers Corinthians were “primarily Greeks and Romans, not Jews.”
He states directly: “So it’s untrue that only prostitutes didn’t wear veils… There is no such evidence.”

Discussion Follow-ups What happens to the prostitute argument if the normal Gentile practice was often unveiled? How might this change how we evaluate other “everybody knows…” claims in Bible teaching?

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