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Question 10

Bercot lists places where *agape* refers to sinful loves (“men love darkness,” “they loved the praise of men,” “Demas… loved this present world”); what does this do to the common assumption that “agape love” is inherently virtuous, and how might it expose ways we hide selfish desires under spiritual-sounding language about “love”?

Another way to ask: If the New Testament sometimes uses agape for sinful loves, what does that do to the idea that “agape love” is always good? How might spiritual-sounding talk about “love” hide selfish wants in your life or church?

Direct Answer In Bercot’s argument, these passages show agape is not automatically virtuous; it can describe misplaced and sinful loves as well as righteous ones. That undercuts spiritual-sounding claims that “agape” guarantees purity of motive, and warns us not to baptize selfish desires with impressive Greek labels.

Support from Transcript:

He says the Septuagint uses agape for “all forms of love… and even love of wrong things.”
Examples from the Septuagint: “How long will you love worthlessness?” (Ps 4:2) and “Those who hate me love death” (Prov 8:36).
He lists New Testament uses where the Greek is agape for sinful or corrupt desires: “Men love darkness rather than light” (John 3:19).
“They loved the praise of men more than the praise of God” (John 12:43).
“Demas has forsaken me, having loved this present world” (2 Tim 4:10).
“Do not love the world” (1 John 2:15), implying agape can be directed wrongly.

Discussion Follow-ups What “love” in your life might actually be love of comfort, approval, or the world, even if you describe it in spiritual terms? How can Scripture’s plain context, not a word-label, test whether our love is truly aligned with God?

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