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Question 5
A major portion of the lesson argues Romans 5:1 should read “Let us have peace with God” rather than “We have peace with God,” and Bercot claims many scholars chose the latter for Augustinian/Lutheran/Calvinist theological reasons—how does this accusation of theological bias in textual decisions challenge your trust in modern translations and in your own theological reflexes?
Another way to ask: If some scholars chose “We have peace with God” because of their theology, how does that affect your trust in Bible translations and your own knee-jerk beliefs?

Direct Answer Based on Bercot’s argument, it challenges us to admit that theology can influence even technical decisions, so we should weigh manuscript evidence seriously and also examine whether we instinctively prefer readings that protect our system.

Support from Transcript:

  • Bercot says ancient manuscripts used by early Christians read “Let us have peace,” while “virtually all modern Bible translations” say “We have peace.”
  • He stresses the stakes: the ancient reading is “an exhortation to maintain peace,” while the later reading suggests peace is “automatic…after our initial salvation.”
  • He cites A.T. Robinson: “Let us have peace with God is the correct text beyond a doubt,” and notes Robinson criticized scholars as “perverse.”
  • Bercot explains the charge: scholars chose “We have peace” “purely for theological reasons,” influenced by “Augustine, Luther and Calvin,” ignoring textual evidence.
  • He quotes Marvin Vincent admitting “The true reading is ‘let us have peace,’ but…difficult,” which Bercot says is only “difficult” because of later theology.
  • He also critiques UBS editors and Metzger’s rationale that “internal evidence must…take precedence,” calling it subjective.
Discussion Follow-ups When you notice a translation choice with doctrinal implications, what habits help you respond with humility rather than suspicion—or with suspicion rather than naivete?