Discussion Jumpstarter
Study leader reference - not a definitive answer
Question 7
Western arguments often say “it must be unleavened because it was instituted on the Passover” and because “leaven…represents sin,” yet the teacher points out Jesus likened the kingdom of God to leaven; how does the teacher’s use of both texts challenge the way evangelicals sometimes build rigid rules from a single biblical metaphor?
Another way to ask: How does using both “leaven means sin” and “the kingdom is like leaven” challenge the way some Christians make strict rules from one Bible picture?
Discussion Jumpstarter
Direct Answer
The teacher challenges rigid rule-making by showing that the same symbol (leaven) can be used both negatively and positively in Scripture, so it cannot automatically produce a strict rule like “leaven always equals sin.”
- He accurately states the Western reasoning: communion “must be unleavened” because it was instituted at Passover, and because “leaven…represent[s] sin.”
- He admits he held that position strongly: he was raised to think leavened communion would mean “we’re sinning against God.”
- He corrects overreach: “It is true that leaven is sometimes used…to illustrate sin…Paul does one time,” and Jesus warned about “the leaven of the Pharisees.”
- Then he adds the balancing text: Jesus likened “the kingdom of heaven…to leaven,” spreading through “three measures of meal till it was all leavened.”
- He draws the principle: “don’t think that…leaven always represents sin because it doesn’t,” warning against “pit[ting] Scripture against Scripture.”