Discussion Jumpstarter
Study leader reference - not a definitive answer
Question 2
The transcript describes a “complete divide between East and West” (Rome/Protestants/Anabaptists vs. Eastern Orthodox/Coptic/Church of the East/Indian Orthodox); what does that widespread and ancient disagreement suggest about how God has (or has not) required uniformity in certain practices?
Another way to ask: If Christians in the East and West have disagreed about this for a very long time, what might that say about whether God requires everyone to practice communion in the exact same way?
Discussion Jumpstarter
Direct Answer
The transcript suggests that when the global, ancient church holds two long-standing practices, God may not have required uniform uniformity on that detail, or else clearer instructions and a more consistent tradition would likely exist.
- The speaker says there is “a complete divide between East and West” over communion bread, with Western churches using unleavened and many Eastern churches using leavened.
- He lists multiple ancient churches on both sides (Roman Catholic/Protestant/Anabaptist/Armenian/Syrian Orthodox vs. Eastern Orthodox/Coptic/Church of the East/Indian Orthodox), stressing the disagreement is broad and old.
- He concludes, “we find no uniform practice whatsoever,” and connects that to the absence of explicit apostolic instruction.
- He argues that if Jesus and the apostles had made it an emphasis, “I don’t think you’d have this divide…nearly half…leavened…[and] the other half…unleavened.”
- He notes early Christian writings “say nothing about it…‘it’s got to be unleavened or…it’s got to be leavened.’”