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Question 8
To refute “long hair is the covering,” the speaker re-reads the passage with that substitution to show it becomes absurd, and then notes Paul switches Greek words when he reaches hair; how should Christians weigh internal logic, grammar/word choice, and early church testimony (like Chrysostom) when deciding between competing interpretations?
Another way to ask: When two interpretations disagree, how should we weigh the passage’s logic, the grammar/word choices, and what early Christians like Chrysostom said? Which of those should matter most, and why?

Direct Answer The transcript suggests Christians should use multiple converging lines of evidence: the passage’s internal logic, careful attention to wording, and how early Christians interpreted and practiced it. When these align (as he argues they do here), the “long hair only” view becomes harder to sustain.

Support from Transcript:

  • He tests the “long hair” view by substitution and shows it reads strangely: “Every man… having long hair dishonors his head… every woman… with her head shaved dishonors her head… let her grow her hair long,” then asks, “Does that make sense?
  • He argues the text implies two distinct coverings: the woman has a “nature” covering (hair) and also a commanded covering.
  • He notes Paul uses one Greek term throughout the earlier section and then “when he talks about the hair, he changes it… to make a distinction between the two.
  • He cites Chrysostom explicitly interpreting two coverings: “not merely covered, but covered over,” and: “if thou cast away the covering appointed by the law of God, cast away likewise appointed by nature.
  • He frames Chrysostom as a strong witness (“golden tongue”) and urges readers to consult these older sources.
Discussion Follow-ups When sources disagree, which should carry more weight: modern assumptions or early Christian interpretation? How can we avoid pretending our preferred reading is “obvious” when the text is complex?