Skip to content

Discussion Jumpstarter

Study leader reference - not a definitive answer
Question 1
The speaker frames Hebrews 2:5–9 as “pieces to the puzzle of the great mystery of God” and keeps asking, “Why did the Son of God become man?” and “Did the Son of God have to become a man?”—what does the passage itself reveal about God’s intentions for humanity that makes those questions unavoidable?
Another way to ask: In Hebrews 2:5–9, what does God say He meant humans to become? How does that make it hard not to ask why the Son of God became human?
Discussion Jumpstarter

Direct Answer
Based on the speaker’s teaching, Hebrews 2:5–9 reveals that God’s stated intention is for “man” (humanity) to be crowned with glory and honor and have all things subjected under his feet—yet this destiny is not currently visible, which forces the question of how God will fulfill it.

Support from Transcript:
  • Hebrews says the “world to come” is not subjected to angels, implying it is destined for humans: “He has not put the world to come…into subjection to angels.”
  • The Psalm 8 quote is applied to man: “You have crowned him with glory and honor…set him over the works of your hands…put all things into subjection under his feet.”
  • The speaker stresses the tension: “But now we do not yet see all things put under him.”
  • He concludes the key is Christ: “But we see Jesus…made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honor.”
  • He explicitly calls this God’s “plan A”: mankind “should be crowned with glory and honor and set over the works of his hand…not angels, but man.”
Discussion Follow-ups If God’s intention for humanity is that high, what does it mean that we only see it clearly “when applied to the Son” right now?