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MemberJuly 24, 2020 at 5:58 am
Just another verse to ask which is used by most, if not all, evangelicals and Roman Catholics to justify original sin and physical death. Please explain Romans 5:12 and how its application to babies and/or children who are innocent of sin yet die if original sin, or an equivalent doctrine or concept of it among early Christians, isn’t true. Is Romans 3 an all encompassing truth, especially verse 23, to include babies as well?